Chapter 7
Test Questions
1. Which is NOT
true of groups (as opposed to mere collections of people)?
a. Groupness
develops over time.
b. Group
members share a common fate.
c. Group
members develop a ÒweÓ identity based on group membership.
d. None, all are
true about groups.
Answer: d
2. In a seven
person group, the number of potential relationships is:
a. 7 b. 14 c.
49 d.
966
Answer: d
3. Which of the
following is NOT one of the advantages of working in groups?
a. group
synergy b.
group support c.
need satisfaction d. groupthink
Answer: d
4. Social
loafing:
a. occurs when
the members of a group fail to fulfill their work potential.
b. occurs in
disjunctive tasks.
c. is one of
the major reasons groups are highly productive.
d. increases
group productivity.
Answer: a
5. Under what
circumstances is group work most effective than individual work?
a. There is
substantial agreement with the group.
b. Time
pressures are great and it is difficult to get group members together.
c. The decision
is complex and needs an innovative, creative solution.
d. None of the
Above
Answer: c
6. Which of the
following does NOT increase group productivity?
a. Members have
a variety of different skills and knowledge.
b. Individual
accountability.
c. An atmosphere
of positive interdependence.
d. None, all of
the above increase group productivity.
Answer: d
7. Which is NOT
one of the factors that will cause people to become more committed to a group?
a. The group
has high status.
b. The group
has the ability to get things done.
c. The group
allows members to reach personal goals.
d. Group
members use hidden agendas.
Answer: d
8. According to
Moreland and Levine, which of the following are experienced by groups and
members
during group
socialization?
a. Task, topic,
and relation tracks.
b. Shared
stereotypes, morality beliefs, mind-guards.
c. Task,
maintenance, and negative roles.
d. Evaluation,
commitment, and role transitions.
Answer: d
9. Which of the
following things will cause a deeper involvement in the life of a group?
a. If task is
emphasized and maintenance concerns are suppressed.
b. If the group
assigns roles on the basis of group needs rather than member desires.
c. If the
status of the group is high.
d. All of the
above
Answer: c
10. An idiosyncrasy
credit is
a. a kind of
symbolic currency earned through conformity.
b. a negative
group role characterized by eccentric behavior.
c. one of the
symptoms of groupthink.
d. a role
transition experienced during group socialization.
Answer: a
11. The output
of the task dimension is
a.
productivity. b.
social cohesion. c.
social loafing. d.
synergy.
Answer: a
12. Which of
the following roles is most useful in moving the group toward its task goals?
a. Recognition
seeker. b. Procedural technician.
c. Special-interest pleader.
d. Encourager.
Answer: b
13. The member
who asks for clarification of values associated with a group problem or
decision is
playing the
role of
a. information
seeker. b. opinion seeker. c. coordinator. d. evaluator-critic.
Answer: b
14. A group
member who shows concern for othersÕ feelings and acts to mediate disagreements
is
a. fulfilling a
maintenance role.
b. acting as group harmonizer.
c. increasing
group cohesiveness. d. All
of the above
Answer: d
15. The person
who manipulates a group in the interests of some other group is called a
a. dominator b. recognition seeker c. special-interest
pleader d. help seeker
Answer: c
16. To guard
against groupthink, members should
a. become more cohesive.
b. ask a group member to play devilÕs advocate.
c. work to
build their confidence in their own invulnerability.
d. None of the
above
Answer: b
17. In a group
beset by groupthink
a. members feel
a great deal of secondary tension.
b. members are
so critical that the climate becomes defensive.
c. members take
full advantage of group synergy.
d. members are
extremely cohesive.
Answer: d
18. Which phase
is described as a conflict phase?
a. norming
phase. b. forming phase. c.
storming phase. d. performing
phase.
Answer: c
19. Which phase
of group development comes after members experience the resolution of secondary
tension?
a. norming
phase
b. forming phase c. storming
phase
d. performing phase
Answer: a
20. Members of
JoeyÕs group interact awkwardly. There are periods of silence, broken by
ambiguous,
tentative, and
occasionally uncertain comments. The group is probably experiencing which
stage?
a. norming
phase b. forming phasec. storming phased. performing phase
Answer: b
21. Members of
JoeyÕs group have chosen a leader and now members are ready to settle down to
work.
The group is
probably experiencing which phase?
a. norming
phase
b. forming phase c. storming phase d.
performing phase
Answer: d
22. Which of
the following behaviors should you avoid if you want to establish a supportive
climate?
a.
description b. problem
orientation c.
neutrality d. None of the
above
Answer: c
23. Which
figure comes closest to expressing the average attention span (devoted to a
single topic) of a
group?
a. 10
seconds.
b. l minute .c. 5
minutes.
d. 20 minutes.
Answer: b
24. Which is
true of nominal group technique?
a. It takes
full advantage of group synergy.
b. It
encourages lively and unrestrained interaction.
c. It
eliminates potential conflict.
d. It allows
more aggressive members to overpower quieter members.
Answer: c
25. In which
kind of public discussion format do audience members split into small
discussion groups after listening to a speaker, discuss the speakerÕs topic,
and then report their results to the assembly as a whole?
a. Buzz group. b.
Symposium. c.
Forum. d.
Panel discussion.
Answer: a
Chapter 8
Test Questions
1. Which of the
following is NOT a characteristic of organizations?
a.
Interdependence. b.
Hierarchical structure.
c. Separation
from the environment. d. None of
the above
Answer: c
2. Which of the
following statements is true of bureaucracies?
a. Employees
work freely without supervision.
b. Workers are
rewarded equally regardless of their individual performances.
c. From their
inception, bureaucracies were considered to be inefficient and dehumanizing.
d. There is a
clear chain of command.
Answer: d
3. According to
Daniels and his colleagues, organizations should be thought of as
a.
islands. b. predators. c. self-contained
nations. d. forms of
behavior.
Answer: d
4. The term
ÒclimateÓ when used to describe organizations refers to
a. the number
of competitors the organization must defeat to be successful.
b. geographical
and weather conditions that can affect how hard employees work.
c. the way
members perceive the organization; its identity.
d. the ratio
between cots of production and profits.
Answer: c
5. What is
genre?
a. Another term
for the superior-subordinate relationship
b. One of the
characteristics of good organizations
c. A unique
type of communication with its own rules of discourse
d.
Communication that is abstract and impersonal
Answer: c
6. A
salesperson plays racquetball with the secretary of the head of research and
afterwards they discuss
the latest
office rumors. This is an example of
a. informal
channels of communication.
b. upward flow.
c. downward
flow.
d. sexual
harassment.
Answer: a
7. The head of marketing
sends a memo to the CEO of the company. This is an example of
a. informal
channels of communication.
b. upward flow.
c. downward
flow.
d. sexual
harassment.
Answer: b
8. The dean of
humanities and sciences addresses faculty at a monthly meeting. This is an
example of
a. informal
channels of communication.
b. upward flow.
c. downward
flow.
d. sexual
harassment.
Answer: c
9. Which of the
following statements is NOT true of the way employees feel about downward flow?
a. They often
donÕt receive enough information to do their jobs.
b. They often
feel they receive too much information.
c. They receive
too much face-to-face and not enough mediated communication.
d. They receive
too much mediated communication and not enough face toface
communication.
Answer: d
10. Which is
the best definition of how assimilation operates in serial transmission?
a. Details are
left out so the amount of information in the message is reduced.
b. Unfamiliar
material is changed so that it makes sense to the sender.
c. Certain high
points in a message given special significance.
d. All of the
above
Answer: b
11. A
gatekeeper in an organization is
a. a person who
communicates frequently with people outside the organization.
b. the person
whose job it is to maintain security and make sure trade secrets do not leave
the
organization.
c. anyone who
is in a position to pass on or discard information.
d. the person
whose job it is to listen to workers at lower levels of the organization and
pass their
concerns
directly to the top.
Answer: c
12. An
ombudsman in an organization is
a. a person who
communicates frequently with people outside the organization.
b. the person
whose job it is to maintain security and make sure trade secrets do not leave
the
organization.
c. anyone who
is in a position to pass on or discard information.
d. the person
whose job it is to listen to workers at lower levels of the organization and
pass their
concerns
directly to the top.
Answer: d
13. What is NOT
true about organizational grapevines?
a. The
grapevine satisfies personal needs not met by formal channels.
b. Rumors
comprise only a small proportion of the information on the grapevine.
c. Most of the
grapevine is made up of rumors.
d. The grapevine
is richer in content than formal communication and allows for immediate
feedback and
clarification.
Answer: c
14. The term
tight-coupling refers to a
a. situation in
which nepotism is rampant within the organization.
b. situation
that occurs when members within the organization feel that they are being
supervised
too closely.
c. high degree
of interdependence between sub-units within the organization.
d. high degree
of concern for the impact of an organization on its environment.
Answer: c
15. __________
skills are directly related to a particular job (such as experience in selling
for a job in
sales).
a. Work content b.
Transferable c. Self-management d. Other-management
Answer: a
16. Which of
the following is NOT a necessary element of professional communication?
a.
acknowledging status difference b.
putting aside personal difference
c. high levels
of self disclosure d.
time management
Answer: c
17. The term
organizational culture is/are
a. the extent
to which the organization is accepted by its surrounding
community.
b. collectively
held understandings about organizational identity.
c. the extent
to which the organization creates a quality product.
d. the extent
to which organizational members are demographically
homogeneous.
Answer: b
18. Which
increases surprise?
a. Linking
newcomers with mentors b.
Early appraisal meetings with feedback
c. Encouraging
secrecy norms and a learn-on-your-own philosophy
d. All of the
above
Answer: c
19. Which of
the following is a good example of an organizational metaphor?
a. Here at Acme
weÕre a caring family
b. Here at Acme
weÕll give you a gold watch at retirement
c. Acme is
known as ÒBig RedÓ
d. Here at Acme
weÕll tell you if you do a good job
Answer: a
20. Orientation
for first-year students at a college or university is an example of
a. rite of
enhancement.
b. rite of
renewal
c. rite of
passage.
d. rite of
conflict reduction.
Answer: c
21. The purpose
of rites of integration is often to
a. permit
catharsis and channel aggression.
b. strengthen organizational
boundaries by defining who belongs and who doesnÕt, and to punish
out of role
behavior.
c. motivate
individuals to strive as well as enhance values of the organization.
d.
compartmentalize conflict.
Answer: a
22. Sexual harassment
is more likely to occur in which of the following situations?
a. When the
organization is tightly coupled
b. When the
superior and subordinate see each other as equals
c. When the
organizations defines the normal employee as male
d. When support
systems for women and people of color are strong and readily available
Answer: c
23. Which of
the following is the richest medium?
a. face-to-face
conversation b. telephone
conversation c.
e-mail
d. written memo
Answer: a
Chapter 9
Test Questions
1. Which of the
following statements is true of public communication as compared to other forms
of
communication?
a. It is
impossible for a speaker to adapt to the needs and experiences of a large
audience.
b. The issues
and topics addressed are usually focused outward, toward a community of
listeners.
c. Organization
and repetition are not very important in this form of communication.
d. None of the
above
Answer: b
2. Which of the
following is NOT a social function of rhetoric?
a. Discovering
facts
b. Testing
ideas
c. Building
community
d. None of the
above
Answer: d
3. Which of the
following is NOT true about context and rhetorical situation?
a. The medium
through which a speech is delivered is an important part of a speechÕs context.
b. Rhetoricians
should take into account the argumentational history of the ideas they discuss.
c. Speakers
should not be distracted by contextual factors; they should do their best to
ignore
factors like
physical setting and occasion.
d. None of the
above
Answer: c
4. Bitzer
believes that in a perfect world there would be no rhetoric because
a. there would
be no exigencies.
b. the public
sphere would not exist.
c. there would
be no differences of opinion.
d. public
speaking would be banned.
Answer: a
5. Which of the
following is an example of a belief?
a. The sun
rises in the east.
b. My religious
leader can be trusted.
c. Green is my
favorite color.
d. All of the
above
Answer: d
6. Which of the
following is a core belief?
a. The sun
rises in the east.
b. My religious
leader can be trusted.
c. Green is my
favorite color.
d. All of the
above
Answer: a
7. Which of the
following appeals focuses on the affective dimension of an audienceÕs
attitudes?
a. Let me give you
a brief and objective history of our intervention in the affairs of our
neighbor
to the South.
b. I ask you to
vote to limit our involvement in this ill-advised intervention.
c. Currently,
countless people are tortured and left to die, families are torn apart, and
children
starve to
death.
d. The
probability of success is 50%. LetÕs consider factors that would make that risk
worth
taking.
Answer: c
8. Which of the
following appeals focuses on the behavioral dimension of an audienceÕs
attitudes?
a. Let me give
you a brief and objective history of our intervention in the affairs of our
neighbor
to the South.
b. I ask you to
vote to limit our involvement in this ill-advised intervention.
c. Currently,
countless people are tortured and left to die, families are torn apart, and
children
starve to
death.
d. None of the
above
Answer: b
9. Which of the
following appeals focuses on the cognitive dimension of an audienceÕs
attitudes?
a. Let me give
you a brief and objective history of our intervention in the affairs of our
neighbor
to the South.
b. I ask you to
vote to limit our involvement in this ill-advised intervention.
c. Currently,
countless people are tortured and left to die, families are torn apart, and
children
starve to
death.
d. All of the
above
Answer: a
10. The three
modes of persuasion described by Aristotle were
a. agora,
pedagaigos, demosthenes.
b. ethos,
logos, pathos.
c. adaptation,
analysis, and presentation.
d. compliance,
noncompliance, and apathy.
Answer: b
11. According
to Aristotle, ethos means
a. logical
argumentation.
b. emotional
appeals.
c. aspects of a
speakerÕs character.
d. none of the
above.
Answer: c
12. A speaker
stresses familiarity and similarity to the audience. The speaker is attempting
to use which
of the
following types of influence?
a.
Internalization .b.
Identification. c.
Compliance. d. Logos.
Answer: b
13. A speaker
stresses expertness and credibility. The speaker is attempting to use which of
the
following types
of influence?
a.
Internalization. b.
Identification. c.
Compliance. d. Pathos.
Answer: a
14. A speaker
stresses legitimacy and control of resources. The speaker is attempting to use
which of the
following types
of influence?
a.
Internalization .b.
Identification. c.
Compliance. d. Logos.
Answer: c
15. The two
most important aspects of speaker credibility are
a. logos and
pathos. b.
familiarity and liking.
c. expertness
and trustworthiness. d.
legitimacy and coercion.
Answer: c
16. In the
following argument, which statement expresses the warrant?
a. You were
clocked driving 75 mph b. You deserve a ticket
c. Driving over
65 is illegal in this state d.
My radar is broken
Answer: c
17. In the
following argument, which statement expresses the claim?
a. You were
clocked driving 75 mph b.
You deserve a ticket
c. Driving over
65 is illegal in this state d.
My radar is broken
Answer: b
18. In the
following argument, which statement expresses the data?
a. You were
clocked driving 75 mph b.
You deserve a ticket
c. Driving over
65 is illegal in this state d.
My radar is broken
Answer: a
19. When a
parent explains his or her actions by telling a child, Òbecause IÕm older than
you and I say
so,Ó he or she
is using
a. an
authoritative argument b.
a motivational argument
c. a
substantive argument d.
All of the above
Answer: a
20. To
establish an argument from cause, it is necessary to prove
a. that youÕve
examined enough cases to draw a correct conclusion.
b. that the
cases youÕre comparing are essentially similar.
c. that the effect
preceded the cause.
d. that another
condition does not exist that leads to both cause and effect.
Answer: d
21. The
argument that there will be six more weeks of winter because the groundhog saw
its shadow is an
example of what
kind of argument?
a.
Generalization. b.
Cause. c. Sign. d. Analogy
Answer: c
22. The
argument, Òbuy our brand of locks to protect your valuable possessions,Ó is
based on which of
MaslowÕs needs?
a.
Physiological. b.
Self-esteem. c.
Love and belongingness. d.
None of the above
Answer: d
23. The
argument, Òwork out three times a week and youÕll feel better about yourself,Ó
is based on which
of MaslowÕs
needs?
a.
Physiological. b.
Self-esteem. c. Love and belongingness. d. None of the
above.
Answer: b
24. ÒWeÕve
already sold one thousand tickets. DonÕt be left out,Ó is an example of what
fallacy?
a. ad hominem b.
slippery slope c.
bandwagon d.
ad populum
Answer: c
25. ÒThis is my
lucky penny. Just after I found it, I won the lottery.Ó This argument is an
example of
which fallacy?
a. post ho cb.
false analogy c.
false dilemma d.
straw man
Answer: a
Chapter 10
Test Questions
1. Which of the
following is true about audience adaptation?
a. Audience
adaptation means that audience members must adapt their values and beliefs to
coincide with
those of the speaker.
b. It is
appropriate to adapt language to an audience, but the purpose and central idea
of the
speech should
not be affected by audience characteristics.
c. The
structure of a persuasive speech delivered to a hostile audience should be
different from
that delivered
to a favorable audience.
d. None of the
above
Answer: c
2. A
demographic analysis gathers information about the
a. groupÕs
audience members belong to, like age, gender, or ethnic groups.
b. basic values
of audience members like self-direction, hedonism, security, and tradition.
c. belief
structures of audience members.
d. three basic
dimensions of attitudes.
Answer: a
3. Which is NOT
a function of an introduction?
a. To create a
desire in the audience to listen to the speech
b. To build
credibility and establish positive ethos
c. To let the
audience know what the speech is about
d. To call for
action
Answer: d
4. Which is a
function of the introduction of a speech?
a. To present detailed
arguments about your main points
b. To allow the
audience to judge your qualifications
c. To reiterate
the significance of the topic
d. To call the
audience to action
Answer: b
5. A thesis is
a. a printed
manuscript version of a speech
b. an objection
that intelligent audience members might make to a speech
c. the central
proposition that is being argued in the speech
d. a boring way
of delivering a speech
Answer: c
6. ÒWhat
would you do if you were suddenly to find yourself homeless? How would your
life be changed?
What would
you do in order to survive? Most of us have never had to confront these
questions, but
many
Americans haveÉÓ This
introduction is an example of the use of
a. personal
reference.
b.
illustration.
c. closed-ended
question.
d. rhetorical
question.
Answer: d
7. Which of the
following is NOT a good way to open a speech?
a. humorous
anecdote b.
Summary c.
startling statement d. personal reference or
greeting
Answer: b
8. Which is NOT
a good way to close a speech?
a. Introduce
new information not discussed previously to give the audience something to
think
about as they
leave. b.
Use a call to action. c. End with a summary of main
points. d. Give the
audience a statement of what the speaker him or herself is prepared to do in
regard to
the proposal.
Answer: a
9. When the
speaker says, ÒIÕm going to discuss with you five reasons why my opponentÕs
plan is
dangerous and
ill-considered,Ó the speaker is using which of the following?
a. preview b. transition c. internal summary d. stock organizational pattern.
Answer: a
10. When the
speaker says, ÒLetÕs move on to the second point,Ó he or she is using which of
the
following?
a. preview b.
transition c.
internal summary d.
stock organizational pattern.
Answer: b
11. ÒSo far
IÕve proved to you that my opponentÕs plan will not work and that it will cost
a great dealÓ is
an example of a
a.
preview. b. transition. c. internal summary. d.
stock organizational pattern.
Answer: c
12. A speaker
is discussing meanings of intimacy. If begins by describing intimacy in the
Colonial period,
goes on to
discuss intimacy in the Jacksonian period, and then talks about intimacy in the
Progressive
era, he is
using a __________ method of organizing his speech.
a. topical b. spatial c. chronological d. motivated
sequence
Answer: c
13. A speaker
is describing food of Japan. She begins by describing Tokyo cuisine, and then
moves to the
foods of Kyoto
and Nara. She is using which method of organizing a speech?
a. topical b. spatial c. chronological d.
motivated sequence
Answer: b
14. A speaker
is describing the advantages of adult education. The speech is organized into
intellectual,
social, and
personal advantages. The speaker is using which organizational pattern?
a. topical b. spatial c.
chronological
d.
motivated sequence
Answer: a
15. A speaker
is trying to persuade college students to begin making investments for their
future. It begins
with a
startling statement about inflation, goes on show the unfortunate results of
relying on oneÕs
salary or on
social security, offers an investment plan that will alleviate the problem,
visualizes what
will happen to
those who follow the plan, and asks students to start saving immediately. The
speaker
is using which
organizational pattern?
a. topical b.
spatial c.
chronological d.
motivated sequence
Answer: d
16. When the
mayor brings up a new proposal at a city council meeting, John stands up and,
on the spur
of the moment,
rebuts the mayorÕs proposal. John is using what kind of delivery?
a.
impromptu b.
extemporaneous c. manuscript d.
None of the preceding
Answer: a
17. Before
speaking, John carefully researches the topic, outlines his thoughts, and practices
his
presentation
ahead of time. When the time comes, John stands up and delivers the speech in a
conversational
tone, using the ideas he has practiced but adding the wording on the spot. John
is using
which kind of
delivery?
a.
impromptu b. extemporaneous c.
Manuscript d. None of the
above
Answer: b
18. The
President is addressing the United Nations on a major policy change to a
controversial and
complex
problem. Which of the following styles would be the most appropriate for her to
use?
a. impromptu b.
extemporaneous
c. manuscript d. use of a surrogate to speak for
her
Answer: c
19. Cognitive
restructuring, when applied to public speaking, means
a. changing
your ideas to match those of your audience
b. a form of
brainwashing often found in propaganda speeches
c. substituting
adaptive thinking for negative thoughts
d. a form of
hypnosis used to cure stage fright
Answer: c
20. Systematic
desensitization is
a. a name for a
kind of speech anxiety that makes speakers ÒfreezeÓ during a speech.
b. a method
used to reduce speech anxiety
c. an effect
that occurs from watching too much television: audiences come to accept
violence
without
reacting
d. an inability
to empathize with an audience
Answer: b
21. Which is
true of the effective use of visual aids?
a. they
distract audience members from the main ideas in a speech
b. they can
increase comprehension by illustrating difficult concepts
c. they often
decrease credibility by distancing a speaker from the audience
d. All of the
above
Answer: b
Chapter 11
Test Questions
1. Which of the
following is NOT an example of new media?
a.
television
b. Email c. instant
messaging
d. mobile SMS communications
Answer: a
2. As communication
changes from interpersonal communication through group and public to mass
communication,
which of the following occurs?
a. Feedback
lessens, until, in mass communication there is no longer any feedback possible.
b. Receivers
become more heterogeneous and are physically distanced from senders.
c. Audience
adaptation becomes less and less important.
d. All of the
above
Answer: b
3. Which of the
following is NOT a function of media?
a. Gathering
and dissemination of information
b. Analysis and
evaluation of information
c. Education
and socialization of receivers
d. None of the
above
Answer: d
4. Which of the
following is a characteristic of mass communication?
a.
Institutional sources
b. Invisible
receivers
c. Fairly noisy
environments during reception
d. All of the
above
Answer: d
5. Which of the
following is the best example of cultural transmission by the media?
a. A book that
details a countryÕs history
b. The evening
news
c. A Òtalking
headÓ news commentary
d. A TV sitcom
Answer: a
6. When we
characterize the media as watchdogs of a free society, we are referring to
which media
function?
a. surveillance
b. correlation c. cultural transmission d. entertainment
Answer: a
7. One of the
effects of the media is that people become narcotized, which means they
a. are so
overloaded by information that they feel overwhelmed.
b. agree
instantly with everything a source says.
c. resist
dominant messages.
d. learn how to
criticize hegemonic messages.
Answer: a
8. Which of the
following is NOT a tenet of cultivation theory?
a. Heavy TV
viewers idealize the world and see it as safer than it really is.
b. Heavy TV
viewing leads to perceptions of the world as a dangerous place.
c. TV
encourages mainstreamed views.
d. TV acts on
us by building up our views of the world, much in the way that stalagmites form
slowly over
time.
Answer: a
9. Which is NOT
a way receivers resist influence?
a. By letting
media set agendas b.
By selective processing
c. By
conducting oppositional readings d.
By using media for individual gratification
Answer: a
10. Media
gatekeepers
a. select which
messages receivers will be exposed to
b. help
individuals resist dominant ideologies
c. use media
for their own individual uses and gratifications
d. have very little
to do with determining message content
Answer: a
11. When
McLuhan coined the phrase, Òthe medium is the message,Ó he was trying to convey
the idea:
a. that media
content is governed by ideal norms.
b. that the
media could predict future events by causing them to happen.
c. that the
channel through which a message is transmitted affects message interpretation
and
often
determines message content.
d. that media
are not logical; they appeal to those of moderate to low intelligence.
Answer: c
12. Generally
hard rock fans do not tune in to radio stations with easy-listening formats and
non-believers
do not watch
televangelists. This is an example of
a. selective
exposure. b.
ideal norms. c. gate-keeping. d. All of the above
Answer: a
13. Which is
the best example of selective attention?
a. Tom is a
socialist so he turns off the TV when any political messages come on that
deviate
from his view.
b. While
watching the news, Tea lets her mind wander; only looking at the scene when the
handsome weatherman
comes on.
c. Shanequa and
Sean watch the President. She thinks the President supports the transportation
bill. He thinks
the President is against it.
d. An hour
after the news is over, neither Tea, Shanequa, nor Sean remembers more than
three or
four stories.
Answer: b
14. Which is
the best example of selective perception?
a. Tom is a
socialist so he turns off the TV when any political messages come on that
deviate
from his view.
b. While
watching the news, Tea lets her mind wander, only looking at the scene when the
handsome
weatherman comes on.
c. Shanequa and
Sean watch the President. She thinks the President supports the transportation
bill. He thinks
the President is against it.
d. An hour
after the news is over, neither Tea, Shanequa, nor Sean remember more than
three or
four stories.
Answer: c
15. Which is
the best example of selective retention?
a. Tom is a
socialist so he turns off the TV when any political messages come on that
deviate
from his view.
b. While
watching the news, Tea lets her mind wander, only looking at the scene when the
handsome
weatherman comes on.
c. Shanequa and
Sean watch the President. She thinks the President supports the transportation
bill. He thinks
the President is against it.
d. An hour
after the news is over, neither Tea, Shanequa, nor Sean remembers more than
three or
four stories.
Answer: d
16. Which of
the following mass mediums acts as a portable friend?
a.
newspapers
b. magazines c. radio d.
television
Answer: c
17. Newspaper format
encourages all of the following EXCEPT
a. a focus on
the unusual and the dramatic.
b. a focus on
abstract ideas rather than concrete details.
c. an interest
in ÒappearanceÓ vs. ÒrealityÓ stories.
d. a
fascination with crime.
Answer: b
18. Which of the
following take the form of hard copy?
a. newspapers b. television tabloid shows c. film d.
television news programming
Answer: a
19. Which of
the following is NOT true about newspaper format?
a. Newspaper
format is designed to allow readers to stop reading at different points but
still get
the gist of the
story.
b. The format
of newspapers like USA Today has been influenced by television.
c. To build
suspense, most essential information in a news story is put at the end
d. All of the
above
Answer: c
20. Which of
the following functions do magazines fulfill for readers?
a. Provide
information about how to act like insiders
b. Give
up-to-date information on fast-breaking events
c. Reflect
generalized ideal norms, but do little to reflect norms and values of subgroups
d. All of the
above
Answer: a
21. Which is
NOT true of radio?
a. It has a
strong interpersonal dimension
b. It is the
most local and ÒdemassifiedÓ of the mass media
c. People who listen
to talk radio have been found to be poorly adjusted and low in intelligence
d. All of the
above; i.e., all are false statements about radio
Answer: c
22. TV formats
encourage all of the following EXCEPT
a. a need for
news to be visually compelling. b. a focus on detailed knowledge.
c. belief in
ideal norms.
d.
interest in dramatic material.
Answer: b
23. Television
causes us to expect
a. time to pass
quickly.
b. arousing
visual stimuli.
c.
psychological identification with characters or spokespersons.
d. All of the
above
Answer: d
24. A genre is
a. a kind of
ideal norm.
b. another name for a newspaper
headline.
c. a segment of
the radio market. d. None of the above
Answer: d
25. Which is
NOT a characteristic of new media?
a. Digital
information has been replaced by analog information
b. Multi-media
capability is enhanced
c.
Asynchronicity allows communicators to consume messages where and when they
want
d. New media
are more interactive than traditional media
Answer: a
26. Dr. Smith
communicates with her class over the Internet. When students have a question or
opinion,
they post it.
Later, when Dr. Smith or other students log on, they respond. This is an
example of
a. asynchronous
discussion forum. b. synchronous
chat.
c. MUD. d.
ISP.
Answer: a
27. According
to professional Webpage designer Jacob Nielsen, which of the
following
should Webpage designers spend most time thinking about
a.
novelty. b. color
contrast. c.
elaborate links to other sites
.d. usability.
Answer: d
28. Which is
true about the hype stages through which most new media go
a. People are
usually suspicious and uninterested during the peak of inflated expectations
stage.
b. In the slope
of enlightenment stage,
people redefine the nature of a technology and find its true use.
c. In the technology
trigger stage, people
find their own unique ways to use a new medium.
d. In the plateau
of productivity stage,
people lose interest in the new medium and stop using it.
Answer: b
29. MMOG stands
for
a. Massively
multiplayer online games
b. Multi-media original games
c. Multi-media
organizational genres
d. Multi-use multi-media online governance
Answer: a
Chapter 12
Test Questions
1. According to
your text, which is true of cultures?
a. Most
cultural differences are due to innate predispositions.
b. Cultures are
group understandings rather than individual understandings.
c. Cultures
affect only a few aspects of our lives; most of what we do is a matter of
individual choice.
d. Cultures are
very stable and extremely resistant to change.
Answer: b
2. The example
of Native American culture in your book shows that
a. when Native
Americans follow traditional cultural patterns they are likely to be misjudged
or
misunderstood
by European-Americans.
b. the Native
Americans studied tended to place a high value on boasting, as well as on
public
displays of
accomplishments.
c. the Native
Americans studied tended to be more competitive with one another than it is
common for
European-Americans to be.
d. All of the
above
Answer: a
3. Which of the
following behaviors might be considered rude in Morocco?
a. Asking the
time dinner is to be served b.
Complimenting parents on their very young child
c. Making
polite conversation during dinner d.
All of the above
Answer: d
4.
Intercultural identity is
a. a
disorientation that occurs as a result of immersion in a new culture.
b. a sense of
belonging both to oneÕs own original culture and to a new culture at the same time.
c. a tendency
to see everything from the perspective of what is normative in oneÕs own
culture.
d. a kind of
role-playing demanded by foreigners who are trying to be accepted.
Answer: b
5. Which of the
following is NOT affected by culture?
a. The way we
perceive events and people b. The roles we are
willing to play
c. The degree
to which we are goal directed d. None of the above; i.e.,
all are affected by culture
Answer: d
6. When Edward
Hall says, ÒIf you touch a culture in one place, everything else is affected,Ó
he means
a. culture has
many facets and all these facets are interrelated.
b. people are
very touchy about their cultures and are easily offended when taboos are
broken.
c. culture can
easily be dismantled and changed.
d. the basis of
all cultural understanding is economic.
Answer: a
7. Effort
optimism is
a. the belief
that hard work will pay off.
b. a feeling of
depression that occurs during culture shock.
c. the idea
that people should be accepted no matter how different they are.
d. the idea
that in the future fate will cause things to improve.
Answer: a
8. The belief
that human behavior is shaped by environmental factors and that improving a
personÕs
surroundings
will improve that person is called the:
a. rationality
premise.
b. perfectibility premise.
c. mutability premise. d. effort optimism.
Answer: c
9. The idea
that humans are born in sin but are capable of achieving goodness through
effort and control
is called the
a. rationality
premise. b. perfectibility
premise. c. mutability
premise. d. effort
optimism.
Answer: b
10. The idea
that most people are capable of discovering the truth through logical analysis
is called
a. rationality
premise. b. perfectibility
premise. c. mutability premise. d. effort optimism.
Answer: a
11. Which of
the following is a characteristic of the thinking of most Americans?
a. effort
optimism. b.
collectivism. c.
mutability premise. d. All of the above
Answer: b
12. Which is a
value in individualist countries?
a. Modesty b. Freedom c.
Thrift d.
Equality in reward distribution
Answer: b
13. Which of
the following is true of the behavior of collectivists?
a. They take
pride in personal achievement.
b. They have
little respect for position, age, sex, status, and authority.
c. They are
upset by bribery and nepotism.
d. When group
memberships change, their values and personal styles may change as well.
Answer: d
14. Which is
true of prejudice?
a. It is
usually formed from direct observation of members of out-groups.
b. Its purpose
is to help people make accurate assessments about others.
c. It is a
product of in-group interaction.
d. All of the
above
Answer: c
15. Comparatively,
Americans value which of the following language styles?
a. ambiguity b.
Directness c.
Effusiveness d.
lying
Answer: b
16. Stereotypes
fulfill which of the following functions?
a. Reducing
anxiety about uncertainty.
b. Making the
world seem more predictable.
c. Reducing
anxiety about uncertainty and making the world seem more predictable.
d. None of the
above
Answer: c
17. Discounting
is a cognitive bias by which we
a. dismiss
information that doesnÕt fit a negative stereotype.
b. interpret
everything a target group does as negative.
c. interpret
othersÕ negative behaviors as internal rather than external.
d. look for
differences and ignore similarities.
Answer: a
18.
Polarization is a cognitive bias by which we
a. dismiss
information that doesnÕt fit a negative stereotype.
b. interpret
everything a target group does as negative.
c. interpret
othersÕ negative behaviors as internal rather than external.
d. look for
differences and ignore similarities.
Answer: d
19. Which is a stumbling
block to intercultural understanding?
a.
prejudice b. assumption of similarity
c.
ethnocentrism d.
All of the above
Answer: d
20. The belief
that if one of ÒthemÓ is rude, itÕs because theyÕre that way by nature; if one
of ÒusÓ is rude,
itÕs because
weÕre under stress is an example of
a. discounting.
b. fundamental
attribution bias.
c.
polarization.
d. assumption
of similarity.
Answer: b
21. The
draw-back-to-leap model holds
a. people
should think before they rush into a new situation.
b. brief
periods of culture shock are necessary for adaptive change.
c. when in a
new culture it is a good idea not to be too friendly at first but to bide your
time until
you have more
information.
d. prejudiced
people misjudge one another based on little real information.
Answer: b
22. A symptom
of culture shock are feelings of
a. helplessness
and lowered self-esteem. b.
excitement and euphoria.
c. confidence
and competence. d.
superiority and arrogance.
Answer: a
23. Which of
the following groups shows the greatest cultural distance?
a. U.S.
American/British b. American Catholic/American Baptist
c.
Western/Asian d.
Urban American/Rural American
Answer: c
24. Which is
NOT a factor associated with successful cross-cultural adaptation?
a. A positive
attitude by host nationals to foreigners
b.
Open-mindedness on the part of the sojourner
c. Staying away
from host nationals and communicating primarily with fellow sojourners
d. All of the
above
Answer: c
25. When people
refer to the global village, they mean:
a. We are
becoming more isolated from one another.
b. In the
future, big cities will fade and small towns will become the norm.
c. The media
distort the true economic conditions of the U.S.
d. The world is
shrinking daily because of advances in telecommunication and transportation
technologies.
Answer: d
Chapter 13
Test Questions
1. Which
statement does NOT characterize commonsense ways of knowing?
a. People
privilege their own experiences.
b. People tend
to dismiss anything that contradicts what theyÕve already decided is true.
c. People rely
on simple heuristics.
d. People
seldom accept the first reasonable explanation they come across.
Answer: d
2. Heuristics
are
a. multistage
methods used by professional scholars to test theories.
b. a way of
drawing a representative sample for a research study.
c. simple rules
that allow people to interpret information without a great deal of thought.
d. a systematic
process of carefully evaluating incoming data by using current schema.
Answer: c
3. Which is NOT
a characteristic of scholarly research?
a. It uses
simple heuristics
b. It is self critical
c. It is cyclical d.
It is self-correcting
Answer: a
4. When we say
that research must be replicable, we mean
a. researchers
must avoid repeating earlier studies.
b. methods must
be so objective that the same results would occur if it were conducted again.
c. research
must always include a comparison between a treatment and a control group.
d. research
involves inventive ingenuity.
Answer: b
5. Which of the
following is an example of an operational definition of credibility?
a. Credibility
is the extent to which an individual is perceived as being worthy of belief.
b. Credibility
is the amount of informational power a source possesses.
c. Credibility
is the score a source achieves on a 7-point scale that asks subjects to
indicate their
responses to
the statement: ÒI find the source believable.Ó
d. All of the
above
Answer: c
6. Which of the
following ways of investigating the topic of communication in cults is an
example of
rhetorical
criticism?
a. Join a cult
and observe cult members as they communicate.
b. Analyze the
values in the cult leadersÕ speeches.
c. Send
questionnaires to ex-members asking them to describe why they joined the cult and
what
they
communicated about in the cult.
d. Take
transcripts from cult membersÕ diaries and perform these transcripts before an
audience.
Answer: b
7. Which of the
following ways of investigating political communication is an example of
ethnographic
research?
a. Volunteer to
work in the campaign of a senate candidate and observe his/her behavior.
b. View
videotapes of campaign ads and identify the themes used at various stages of
the campaign.
c. Interview a
representative group of politicians, asking them to describe and rate
strategies used
in the
campaign.
d. Create two
different ads, one that attacks a candidateÕs opponent and the other than gives
positive
information about the candidate; show the ads to randomly selected groups of
viewers to
see which is
most effective.
Answer: a
8. Which of the
following research questions most clearly calls for content analysis?
a. Is racial
tension increasing at a certain high school, as measured by graffiti?
b. How are
conversational openings and closing structured?
c. What is the
average number of violent acts on prime-time television?
d. How did
Mario Cuomo use metaphor to reach multiple audiences in his keynote address at
the
l984 Democratic
National Convention?
Answer: c
9. The research
method that is an extension and refinement of the everyday impulse to evaluate
and
analyze the
impact of messages is
a.
triangulation. b. conversational analysis. c. rhetorical criticism. d. survey research.
Answer: c
10. A study in which
the critic looked at the way cultural products represent a cultureÕs basic
ideals and
principles
would be an example of
a. Burkean
dramatistic analysis. b.
unobtrusive measurement .c.
social movement study.
d. social values criticism.
Answer: d
11. Which
research method did ConquergoodÕs study of gangs in Chicago use?
a. survey
research b. experimental c. ethnography d. performance studies
Answer: c
12. Which of
the following survey questions is phrased in an acceptable way?
a. How many ounces
of cola beverage do you consume in a week?
b. When you
cheat on tests, why do you do so?
c. Do you
believe that the way women are portrayed on television as sex
objects should
be changed?
d. None of the
above
Answer: d
13. Vignes used
which method in conducting her study of the Katrina survivors?
a.
Questionnaire b.
Content analysis of open-ended responses c. Survey d. Performance Research
Answer: d
14. RayÕs study
showed that
a. women never
tried to gain the right to vote.
b. most people today donÕt believe women should be voting.
c. real social
change, such as women earning the right to vote, requires hard work and
overcoming
obstacles. d.
before earning the vote, women would dress up like men to try to register to
vote.
Answer: c
15. Which of
the following is NOT essential in a well-designed study?
a. use of
naturally occurring groups b.
comparison of two or more groups
c. random
assignment to treatment groups d. a post-test
Answer: a
16. According
to the studies on reality television, which is NOT a motive for watching
reality television
programs?
a. The need to
escape b.
The need to feel self important
c. An enjoyment
of competition d. To
procrastinate from doing homework
Answer: d
17. What was
NOT a result of LeeÕs study on the developmental nature of robots?
a. Students
that interacted with the developing robot felt it was more lifelike.
b. Students
that interacted with the developing robot experienced more social presence.
c. Students
that interacted with the developing robot felt emotionally closer to it.
d. Students
that interacted with the developing robot felt that it was annoying.
Answer: d