Chapter 7 Test Questions

1. Which is NOT true of groups (as opposed to mere collections of people)?

a. Groupness develops over time.

b. Group members share a common fate.

c. Group members develop a ÒweÓ identity based on group membership.

d. None, all are true about groups.

Answer: d

 

2. In a seven person group, the number of potential relationships is:

a. 7      b. 14                c. 49                d. 966

Answer: d

 

3. Which of the following is NOT one of the advantages of working in groups?

a. group synergy          b. group support          c. need satisfaction        d. groupthink

Answer: d

 

4. Social loafing:

a. occurs when the members of a group fail to fulfill their work potential.

b. occurs in disjunctive tasks.

c. is one of the major reasons groups are highly productive.

d. increases group productivity.

Answer: a

 

5. Under what circumstances is group work most effective than individual work?

a. There is substantial agreement with the group.

b. Time pressures are great and it is difficult to get group members together.

c. The decision is complex and needs an innovative, creative solution.

d. None of the Above

Answer: c

 

6. Which of the following does NOT increase group productivity?

a. Members have a variety of different skills and knowledge.

b. Individual accountability.

c. An atmosphere of positive interdependence.

d. None, all of the above increase group productivity.

Answer: d

 

7. Which is NOT one of the factors that will cause people to become more committed to a group?

a. The group has high status.

b. The group has the ability to get things done.

c. The group allows members to reach personal goals.

d. Group members use hidden agendas.

Answer: d

 

8. According to Moreland and Levine, which of the following are experienced by groups and members

during group socialization?

a. Task, topic, and relation tracks.

b. Shared stereotypes, morality beliefs, mind-guards.

c. Task, maintenance, and negative roles.

d. Evaluation, commitment, and role transitions.

Answer: d

 

9. Which of the following things will cause a deeper involvement in the life of a group?

a. If task is emphasized and maintenance concerns are suppressed.

b. If the group assigns roles on the basis of group needs rather than member desires.

c. If the status of the group is high.

d. All of the above

Answer: c

 

10. An idiosyncrasy credit is

a. a kind of symbolic currency earned through conformity.

b. a negative group role characterized by eccentric behavior.

c. one of the symptoms of groupthink.

d. a role transition experienced during group socialization.

Answer: a

 

11. The output of the task dimension is

a. productivity.     b. social cohesion.               c. social loafing.           d. synergy.

Answer: a

12. Which of the following roles is most useful in moving the group toward its task goals?

a. Recognition seeker. b. Procedural technician.  c. Special-interest pleader.   d. Encourager.

Answer: b

 

13. The member who asks for clarification of values associated with a group problem or decision is

playing the role of

a. information seeker.  b. opinion seeker.    c. coordinator.    d. evaluator-critic.

Answer: b

 

14. A group member who shows concern for othersÕ feelings and acts to mediate disagreements is

a. fulfilling a maintenance role.      b. acting as group harmonizer.

c. increasing group cohesiveness.   d. All of the above

Answer: d

 

15. The person who manipulates a group in the interests of some other group is called a

a. dominator    b. recognition seeker    c. special-interest pleader   d. help seeker

Answer: c

  

16. To guard against groupthink, members should

a. become more cohesive. b. ask a group member to play devilÕs advocate.

c. work to build their confidence in their own invulnerability.

d. None of the above

Answer: b

 

17. In a group beset by groupthink

a. members feel a great deal of secondary tension.

b. members are so critical that the climate becomes defensive.

c. members take full advantage of group synergy.

d. members are extremely cohesive.

Answer: d

 

18. Which phase is described as a conflict phase?

a. norming phase.   b. forming phase. c. storming phase.  d. performing phase.

Answer: c

 

19. Which phase of group development comes after members experience the resolution of secondary

tension?

a. norming phase        b. forming phase          c. storming phase        d. performing phase

Answer: a

 

20. Members of JoeyÕs group interact awkwardly. There are periods of silence, broken by ambiguous,

tentative, and occasionally uncertain comments. The group is probably experiencing which stage?

a. norming phase b. forming phasec. storming phased. performing phase

Answer: b

 

21. Members of JoeyÕs group have chosen a leader and now members are ready to settle down to work.

The group is probably experiencing which phase?

a. norming phase        b. forming phase      c. storming phase        d. performing phase

Answer: d

22. Which of the following behaviors should you avoid if you want to establish a supportive climate?

a. description   b. problem orientation   c. neutrality   d. None of the above 

Answer: c

 

23. Which figure comes closest to expressing the average attention span (devoted to a single topic) of a

group?

a. 10 seconds.       b. l minute         .c. 5 minutes.       d. 20 minutes.

Answer: b

 

24. Which is true of nominal group technique?

a. It takes full advantage of group synergy.

b. It encourages lively and unrestrained interaction.

c. It eliminates potential conflict.

d. It allows more aggressive members to overpower quieter members.

Answer: c

 

25. In which kind of public discussion format do audience members split into small discussion groups after listening to a speaker, discuss the speakerÕs topic, and then report their results to the assembly as a whole?

a. Buzz group.             b. Symposium.             c. Forum.                     d. Panel discussion.

Answer: a

 

Chapter 8 Test Questions

1. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of organizations?

a. Interdependence.                              b. Hierarchical structure.

c. Separation from the environment.  d. None of the above

Answer: c

 

2. Which of the following statements is true of bureaucracies?

a. Employees work freely without supervision.

b. Workers are rewarded equally regardless of their individual performances.

c. From their inception, bureaucracies were considered to be inefficient and dehumanizing.

d. There is a clear chain of command.

Answer: d

 

3. According to Daniels and his colleagues, organizations should be thought of as

a. islands.   b. predators.    c. self-contained nations.   d. forms of behavior.

Answer: d

 

4. The term ÒclimateÓ when used to describe organizations refers to

a. the number of competitors the organization must defeat to be successful.

b. geographical and weather conditions that can affect how hard employees work.

c. the way members perceive the organization; its identity.

d. the ratio between cots of production and profits.

Answer: c

 

5. What is genre?

a. Another term for the superior-subordinate relationship

b. One of the characteristics of good organizations

c. A unique type of communication with its own rules of discourse

d. Communication that is abstract and impersonal

Answer: c

 

6. A salesperson plays racquetball with the secretary of the head of research and afterwards they discuss

the latest office rumors. This is an example of

a. informal channels of communication.

b. upward flow.

c. downward flow.

d. sexual harassment.

Answer: a

 

7. The head of marketing sends a memo to the CEO of the company. This is an example of

a. informal channels of communication.

b. upward flow.

c. downward flow.

d. sexual harassment.

Answer: b

 

8. The dean of humanities and sciences addresses faculty at a monthly meeting. This is an example of

a. informal channels of communication.

b. upward flow.

c. downward flow.

d. sexual harassment.

Answer: c

 

9. Which of the following statements is NOT true of the way employees feel about downward flow?

a. They often donÕt receive enough information to do their jobs.

b. They often feel they receive too much information.

c. They receive too much face-to-face and not enough mediated communication.

d. They receive too much mediated communication and not enough face toface

communication.

Answer: d

 

10. Which is the best definition of how assimilation operates in serial transmission?

a. Details are left out so the amount of information in the message is reduced.

b. Unfamiliar material is changed so that it makes sense to the sender.

c. Certain high points in a message given special significance.

d. All of the above

Answer: b

 

11. A gatekeeper in an organization is

a. a person who communicates frequently with people outside the organization.

b. the person whose job it is to maintain security and make sure trade secrets do not leave the

organization.

c. anyone who is in a position to pass on or discard information.

d. the person whose job it is to listen to workers at lower levels of the organization and pass their

concerns directly to the top.

Answer: c

 

12. An ombudsman in an organization is

a. a person who communicates frequently with people outside the organization.

b. the person whose job it is to maintain security and make sure trade secrets do not leave the

organization.

c. anyone who is in a position to pass on or discard information.

d. the person whose job it is to listen to workers at lower levels of the organization and pass their

concerns directly to the top.

Answer: d

 

13. What is NOT true about organizational grapevines?

a. The grapevine satisfies personal needs not met by formal channels.

b. Rumors comprise only a small proportion of the information on the grapevine.

c. Most of the grapevine is made up of rumors.

d. The grapevine is richer in content than formal communication and allows for immediate

feedback and clarification.

Answer: c

 

14. The term tight-coupling refers to a

a. situation in which nepotism is rampant within the organization.

b. situation that occurs when members within the organization feel that they are being supervised

too closely.

c. high degree of interdependence between sub-units within the organization.

d. high degree of concern for the impact of an organization on its environment.

Answer: c

 

15. __________ skills are directly related to a particular job (such as experience in selling for a job in

sales).

a. Work content           b. Transferable c. Self-management     d. Other-management

Answer: a

 

16. Which of the following is NOT a necessary element of professional communication?

a. acknowledging status difference                   b. putting aside personal difference

c. high levels of self disclosure                         d. time management

Answer: c

 

17. The term organizational culture is/are

a. the extent to which the organization is accepted by its surrounding

community.

b. collectively held understandings about organizational identity.

c. the extent to which the organization creates a quality product.

d. the extent to which organizational members are demographically

homogeneous.

Answer: b

 

18. Which increases surprise?

a. Linking newcomers with mentors   b. Early appraisal meetings with feedback

c. Encouraging secrecy norms and a learn-on-your-own philosophy

d. All of the above

Answer: c

 

19. Which of the following is a good example of an organizational metaphor?

a. Here at Acme weÕre a caring family

b. Here at Acme weÕll give you a gold watch at retirement

c. Acme is known as ÒBig RedÓ

d. Here at Acme weÕll tell you if you do a good job

Answer: a

 

20. Orientation for first-year students at a college or university is an example of

a. rite of enhancement.

b. rite of renewal

c. rite of passage.

d. rite of conflict reduction.

Answer: c

 

21. The purpose of rites of integration is often to

a. permit catharsis and channel aggression.

b. strengthen organizational boundaries by defining who belongs and who doesnÕt, and to punish

out of role behavior.

c. motivate individuals to strive as well as enhance values of the organization.

d. compartmentalize conflict.

Answer: a

 

22. Sexual harassment is more likely to occur in which of the following situations?

a. When the organization is tightly coupled

b. When the superior and subordinate see each other as equals

c. When the organizations defines the normal employee as male

d. When support systems for women and people of color are strong and readily available

Answer: c

 

23. Which of the following is the richest medium?

a. face-to-face conversation   b. telephone conversation     c. e-mail       d. written memo

Answer: a

 

Chapter 9 Test Questions

1. Which of the following statements is true of public communication as compared to other forms of

communication?

a. It is impossible for a speaker to adapt to the needs and experiences of a large audience.

b. The issues and topics addressed are usually focused outward, toward a community of listeners.

c. Organization and repetition are not very important in this form of communication.

d. None of the above

Answer: b

 

2. Which of the following is NOT a social function of rhetoric?

a. Discovering facts

b. Testing ideas

c. Building community

d. None of the above

Answer: d

 

3. Which of the following is NOT true about context and rhetorical situation?

a. The medium through which a speech is delivered is an important part of a speechÕs context.

b. Rhetoricians should take into account the argumentational history of the ideas they discuss.

c. Speakers should not be distracted by contextual factors; they should do their best to ignore

factors like physical setting and occasion.

d. None of the above

Answer: c

 

4. Bitzer believes that in a perfect world there would be no rhetoric because

a. there would be no exigencies.

b. the public sphere would not exist.

c. there would be no differences of opinion.

d. public speaking would be banned.

Answer: a

 

5. Which of the following is an example of a belief?

a. The sun rises in the east.

b. My religious leader can be trusted.

c. Green is my favorite color.

d. All of the above

Answer: d

 

6. Which of the following is a core belief?

a. The sun rises in the east.

b. My religious leader can be trusted.

c. Green is my favorite color.

d. All of the above

Answer: a

 

7. Which of the following appeals focuses on the affective dimension of an audienceÕs attitudes?

a. Let me give you a brief and objective history of our intervention in the affairs of our neighbor

to the South.

b. I ask you to vote to limit our involvement in this ill-advised intervention.

c. Currently, countless people are tortured and left to die, families are torn apart, and children

starve to death.

d. The probability of success is 50%. LetÕs consider factors that would make that risk worth

taking.

Answer: c

 

8. Which of the following appeals focuses on the behavioral dimension of an audienceÕs attitudes?

a. Let me give you a brief and objective history of our intervention in the affairs of our neighbor

to the South.

b. I ask you to vote to limit our involvement in this ill-advised intervention.

c. Currently, countless people are tortured and left to die, families are torn apart, and children

starve to death.

d. None of the above

Answer: b

 

9. Which of the following appeals focuses on the cognitive dimension of an audienceÕs attitudes?

a. Let me give you a brief and objective history of our intervention in the affairs of our neighbor

to the South.

b. I ask you to vote to limit our involvement in this ill-advised intervention.

c. Currently, countless people are tortured and left to die, families are torn apart, and children

starve to death.

d. All of the above

Answer: a

 

10. The three modes of persuasion described by Aristotle were

a. agora, pedagaigos, demosthenes.

b. ethos, logos, pathos.

c. adaptation, analysis, and presentation.

d. compliance, noncompliance, and apathy.

Answer: b

 

11. According to Aristotle, ethos means

a. logical argumentation.

b. emotional appeals.

c. aspects of a speakerÕs character.

d. none of the above.

Answer: c

 

12. A speaker stresses familiarity and similarity to the audience. The speaker is attempting to use which

of the following types of influence?

a. Internalization          .b. Identification.         c. Compliance. d. Logos.

Answer: b

 

13. A speaker stresses expertness and credibility. The speaker is attempting to use which of the

following types of influence?

a. Internalization.         b. Identification.          c. Compliance. d. Pathos.

Answer: a

 

14. A speaker stresses legitimacy and control of resources. The speaker is attempting to use which of the

following types of influence?

a. Internalization          .b. Identification.         c. Compliance. d. Logos.

Answer: c

 

15. The two most important aspects of speaker credibility are

a. logos and pathos.                                         b. familiarity and liking.

c. expertness and trustworthiness.                     d. legitimacy and coercion.

Answer: c

 

16. In the following argument, which statement expresses the warrant?

a. You were clocked driving 75 mph                b. You deserve a ticket

c. Driving over 65 is illegal in this state            d. My radar is broken

Answer: c

 

17. In the following argument, which statement expresses the claim?

a. You were clocked driving 75 mph               b. You deserve a ticket

c. Driving over 65 is illegal in this state            d. My radar is broken

Answer: b

 

18. In the following argument, which statement expresses the data?

a. You were clocked driving 75 mph               b. You deserve a ticket

c. Driving over 65 is illegal in this state            d. My radar is broken

Answer: a

 

19. When a parent explains his or her actions by telling a child, Òbecause IÕm older than you and I say

so,Ó he or she is using

a. an authoritative argument                 b. a motivational argument

c. a substantive argument                     d. All of the above

Answer: a

 

20. To establish an argument from cause, it is necessary to prove

a. that youÕve examined enough cases to draw a correct conclusion.

b. that the cases youÕre comparing are essentially similar.

c. that the effect preceded the cause.

d. that another condition does not exist that leads to both cause and effect.

Answer: d

 

21. The argument that there will be six more weeks of winter because the groundhog saw its shadow is an

example of what kind of argument?

a. Generalization.         b. Cause.            c. Sign.          d. Analogy

Answer: c

 

22. The argument, Òbuy our brand of locks to protect your valuable possessions,Ó is based on which of

MaslowÕs needs?

a. Physiological.           b. Self-esteem.             c. Love and belongingness.      d. None of the above

Answer: d

 

23. The argument, Òwork out three times a week and youÕll feel better about yourself,Ó is based on which

of MaslowÕs needs?

a. Physiological.           b. Self-esteem. c. Love and belongingness.      d. None of the above.

Answer: b

 

24. ÒWeÕve already sold one thousand tickets. DonÕt be left out,Ó is an example of what fallacy?

a. ad hominem                         b. slippery slope           c. bandwagon              d. ad populum

Answer: c

 

25. ÒThis is my lucky penny. Just after I found it, I won the lottery.Ó This argument is an example of

which fallacy?

a. post ho         cb. false analogy          c. false dilemma           d. straw man

Answer: a

 

Chapter 10 Test Questions

1. Which of the following is true about audience adaptation?

a. Audience adaptation means that audience members must adapt their values and beliefs to

coincide with those of the speaker.

b. It is appropriate to adapt language to an audience, but the purpose and central idea of the

speech should not be affected by audience characteristics.

c. The structure of a persuasive speech delivered to a hostile audience should be different from

that delivered to a favorable audience.

d. None of the above

Answer: c

 

2. A demographic analysis gathers information about the

a. groupÕs audience members belong to, like age, gender, or ethnic groups.

b. basic values of audience members like self-direction, hedonism, security, and tradition.

c. belief structures of audience members.

d. three basic dimensions of attitudes.

Answer: a

 

3. Which is NOT a function of an introduction?

a. To create a desire in the audience to listen to the speech

b. To build credibility and establish positive ethos

c. To let the audience know what the speech is about

d. To call for action

Answer: d

 

4. Which is a function of the introduction of a speech?

a. To present detailed arguments about your main points

b. To allow the audience to judge your qualifications

c. To reiterate the significance of the topic

d. To call the audience to action

Answer: b

 

5. A thesis is

a. a printed manuscript version of a speech

b. an objection that intelligent audience members might make to a speech

c. the central proposition that is being argued in the speech

d. a boring way of delivering a speech

Answer: c

 

6. ÒWhat would you do if you were suddenly to find yourself homeless? How would your life be changed?

What would you do in order to survive? Most of us have never had to confront these questions, but

many Americans haveÉÓ This introduction is an example of the use of

a. personal reference.

b. illustration.

c. closed-ended question.

d. rhetorical question.

Answer: d

 

7. Which of the following is NOT a good way to open a speech?

a. humorous anecdote    b. Summary     c. startling statement       d. personal reference or greeting

Answer: b

 

8. Which is NOT a good way to close a speech?

a. Introduce new information not discussed previously to give the audience something to think

about as they leave.                  b. Use a call to action.              c. End with a summary of main points.    d. Give the audience a statement of what the speaker him or herself is prepared to do in regard to

the proposal.

Answer: a

 

9. When the speaker says, ÒIÕm going to discuss with you five reasons why my opponentÕs plan is

dangerous and ill-considered,Ó the speaker is using which of the following?

a. preview    b. transition   c. internal summary  d. stock organizational pattern.

Answer: a

 

10. When the speaker says, ÒLetÕs move on to the second point,Ó he or she is using which of the

following?

a. preview        b. transition     c. internal summary                 d. stock organizational pattern.

Answer: b

 

11. ÒSo far IÕve proved to you that my opponentÕs plan will not work and that it will cost a great dealÓ is

an example of a

a. preview.       b. transition.     c. internal summary.                d. stock organizational pattern.

Answer: c

 

12. A speaker is discussing meanings of intimacy. If begins by describing intimacy in the Colonial period,

goes on to discuss intimacy in the Jacksonian period, and then talks about intimacy in the Progressive

era, he is using a __________ method of organizing his speech.

a. topical       b. spatial       c. chronological      d. motivated sequence

Answer: c

 

13. A speaker is describing food of Japan. She begins by describing Tokyo cuisine, and then moves to the

foods of Kyoto and Nara. She is using which method of organizing a speech?

a. topical           b. spatial          c. chronological                      d. motivated sequence

Answer: b

 

14. A speaker is describing the advantages of adult education. The speech is organized into intellectual,

social, and personal advantages. The speaker is using which organizational pattern?

a. topical          b. spatial          c. chronological           d. motivated sequence

Answer: a

   

15. A speaker is trying to persuade college students to begin making investments for their future. It begins

with a startling statement about inflation, goes on show the unfortunate results of relying on oneÕs

salary or on social security, offers an investment plan that will alleviate the problem, visualizes what

will happen to those who follow the plan, and asks students to start saving immediately. The speaker

is using which organizational pattern?

a. topical                      b. spatial      c. chronological     d. motivated sequence

Answer: d

 

16. When the mayor brings up a new proposal at a city council meeting, John stands up and, on the spur

of the moment, rebuts the mayorÕs proposal. John is using what kind of delivery?

a. impromptu               b. extemporaneous       c. manuscript        d. None of the preceding

Answer: a

 

17. Before speaking, John carefully researches the topic, outlines his thoughts, and practices his

presentation ahead of time. When the time comes, John stands up and delivers the speech in a

conversational tone, using the ideas he has practiced but adding the wording on the spot. John is using

which kind of delivery?

a. impromptu   b. extemporaneous                   c. Manuscript   d. None of the above

Answer: b

 

18. The President is addressing the United Nations on a major policy change to a controversial and

complex problem. Which of the following styles would be the most appropriate for her to use?

a. impromptu       b. extemporaneous      c. manuscript      d. use of a surrogate to speak for her

Answer: c

 

19. Cognitive restructuring, when applied to public speaking, means

a. changing your ideas to match those of your audience

b. a form of brainwashing often found in propaganda speeches

c. substituting adaptive thinking for negative thoughts

d. a form of hypnosis used to cure stage fright

Answer: c

 

20. Systematic desensitization is

a. a name for a kind of speech anxiety that makes speakers ÒfreezeÓ during a speech.

b. a method used to reduce speech anxiety

c. an effect that occurs from watching too much television: audiences come to accept violence

without reacting

d. an inability to empathize with an audience

Answer: b

 

21. Which is true of the effective use of visual aids?

a. they distract audience members from the main ideas in a speech

b. they can increase comprehension by illustrating difficult concepts

c. they often decrease credibility by distancing a speaker from the audience

d. All of the above

Answer: b

 

Chapter 11 Test Questions

1. Which of the following is NOT an example of new media?

a. television            b. Email   c. instant messaging       d. mobile SMS communications

Answer: a

 

2. As communication changes from interpersonal communication through group and public to mass

communication, which of the following occurs?

a. Feedback lessens, until, in mass communication there is no longer any feedback possible.

b. Receivers become more heterogeneous and are physically distanced from senders.

c. Audience adaptation becomes less and less important.

d. All of the above

Answer: b

 

3. Which of the following is NOT a function of media?

a. Gathering and dissemination of information

b. Analysis and evaluation of information

c. Education and socialization of receivers

d. None of the above

Answer: d

 

4. Which of the following is a characteristic of mass communication?

a. Institutional sources

b. Invisible receivers

c. Fairly noisy environments during reception

d. All of the above

Answer: d

 

5. Which of the following is the best example of cultural transmission by the media?

a. A book that details a countryÕs history

b. The evening news

c. A Òtalking headÓ news commentary

d. A TV sitcom

Answer: a

 

6. When we characterize the media as watchdogs of a free society, we are referring to which media

function?

a. surveillance  b. correlation   c. cultural transmission            d. entertainment

Answer: a

 

7. One of the effects of the media is that people become narcotized, which means they

a. are so overloaded by information that they feel overwhelmed.

b. agree instantly with everything a source says.

c. resist dominant messages.

d. learn how to criticize hegemonic messages.

Answer: a

 

8. Which of the following is NOT a tenet of cultivation theory?

a. Heavy TV viewers idealize the world and see it as safer than it really is.

b. Heavy TV viewing leads to perceptions of the world as a dangerous place.

c. TV encourages mainstreamed views.

d. TV acts on us by building up our views of the world, much in the way that stalagmites form

slowly over time.

Answer: a

 

9. Which is NOT a way receivers resist influence?

a. By letting media set agendas                         b. By selective processing

c. By conducting oppositional readings                        d. By using media for individual gratification

Answer: a

 

10. Media gatekeepers

a. select which messages receivers will be exposed to

b. help individuals resist dominant ideologies

c. use media for their own individual uses and gratifications

d. have very little to do with determining message content

Answer: a

 

11. When McLuhan coined the phrase, Òthe medium is the message,Ó he was trying to convey the idea:

a. that media content is governed by ideal norms.

b. that the media could predict future events by causing them to happen.

c. that the channel through which a message is transmitted affects message interpretation and

often determines message content.

d. that media are not logical; they appeal to those of moderate to low intelligence.

Answer: c

 

12. Generally hard rock fans do not tune in to radio stations with easy-listening formats and non-believers

do not watch televangelists. This is an example of

a. selective exposure.     b. ideal norms.       c. gate-keeping.    d. All of the above

Answer: a

 

13. Which is the best example of selective attention?

a. Tom is a socialist so he turns off the TV when any political messages come on that deviate

from his view.

b. While watching the news, Tea lets her mind wander; only looking at the scene when the

handsome weatherman comes on.

c. Shanequa and Sean watch the President. She thinks the President supports the transportation

bill. He thinks the President is against it.

d. An hour after the news is over, neither Tea, Shanequa, nor Sean remembers more than three or

four stories.

Answer: b

 

14. Which is the best example of selective perception?

a. Tom is a socialist so he turns off the TV when any political messages come on that deviate

from his view.

b. While watching the news, Tea lets her mind wander, only looking at the scene when the

handsome weatherman comes on.

c. Shanequa and Sean watch the President. She thinks the President supports the transportation

bill. He thinks the President is against it.

d. An hour after the news is over, neither Tea, Shanequa, nor Sean remember more than three or

four stories.

Answer: c

 

15. Which is the best example of selective retention?

a. Tom is a socialist so he turns off the TV when any political messages come on that deviate

from his view.

b. While watching the news, Tea lets her mind wander, only looking at the scene when the

handsome weatherman comes on.

c. Shanequa and Sean watch the President. She thinks the President supports the transportation

bill. He thinks the President is against it.

d. An hour after the news is over, neither Tea, Shanequa, nor Sean remembers more than three or

four stories.

Answer: d

 

16. Which of the following mass mediums acts as a portable friend?

a. newspapers      b. magazines c. radio                       d. television

Answer: c

 

17. Newspaper format encourages all of the following EXCEPT

a. a focus on the unusual and the dramatic.

b. a focus on abstract ideas rather than concrete details.

c. an interest in ÒappearanceÓ vs. ÒrealityÓ stories.

d. a fascination with crime.

Answer: b

 

18. Which of the following take the form of hard copy?

a. newspapers   b. television tabloid shows       c. film              d. television news programming

Answer: a

 

19. Which of the following is NOT true about newspaper format?

a. Newspaper format is designed to allow readers to stop reading at different points but still get

the gist of the story.

b. The format of newspapers like USA Today has been influenced by television.

c. To build suspense, most essential information in a news story is put at the end

d. All of the above

Answer: c

   

20. Which of the following functions do magazines fulfill for readers?

a. Provide information about how to act like insiders

b. Give up-to-date information on fast-breaking events

c. Reflect generalized ideal norms, but do little to reflect norms and values of subgroups

d. All of the above

Answer: a

 

21. Which is NOT true of radio?

a. It has a strong interpersonal dimension

b. It is the most local and ÒdemassifiedÓ of the mass media

c. People who listen to talk radio have been found to be poorly adjusted and low in intelligence

d. All of the above; i.e., all are false statements about radio

Answer: c

 

22. TV formats encourage all of the following EXCEPT

a. a need for news to be visually compelling.     b. a focus on detailed knowledge.

c. belief in ideal norms.                                    d. interest in dramatic material.

Answer: b

 

23. Television causes us to expect

a. time to pass quickly.

b. arousing visual stimuli.

c. psychological identification with characters or spokespersons.

d. All of the above

Answer: d

 

24. A genre is

a. a kind of ideal norm.                         b. another name for a newspaper headline.

c. a segment of the radio market.          d. None of the above

Answer: d

 

25. Which is NOT a characteristic of new media?

a. Digital information has been replaced by analog information

b. Multi-media capability is enhanced

c. Asynchronicity allows communicators to consume messages where and when they want

d. New media are more interactive than traditional media

Answer: a

 

26. Dr. Smith communicates with her class over the Internet. When students have a question or opinion,

they post it. Later, when Dr. Smith or other students log on, they respond. This is an example of

a. asynchronous discussion forum.         b. synchronous chat.

c. MUD.                                               d. ISP.

Answer: a

 

27. According to professional Webpage designer Jacob Nielsen, which of the

following should Webpage designers spend most time thinking about

a. novelty.    b. color contrast.     c. elaborate links to other sites     .d. usability.

Answer: d

 

28. Which is true about the hype stages through which most new media go

a. People are usually suspicious and uninterested during the peak of inflated expectations stage.

b. In the slope of enlightenment stage, people redefine the nature of a technology and find its true use.

c. In the technology trigger stage, people find their own unique ways to use a new medium.

d. In the plateau of productivity stage, people lose interest in the new medium and stop using it.

Answer: b

 

29. MMOG stands for

a. Massively multiplayer online games    b. Multi-media original games

c. Multi-media organizational genres     d. Multi-use multi-media online governance

Answer: a

 

Chapter 12 Test Questions

1. According to your text, which is true of cultures?

a. Most cultural differences are due to innate predispositions.

b. Cultures are group understandings rather than individual understandings.

c. Cultures affect only a few aspects of our lives; most of what we do is a matter of individual choice.

d. Cultures are very stable and extremely resistant to change.

Answer: b

 

2. The example of Native American culture in your book shows that

a. when Native Americans follow traditional cultural patterns they are likely to be misjudged or

misunderstood by European-Americans.

b. the Native Americans studied tended to place a high value on boasting, as well as on public

displays of accomplishments.

c. the Native Americans studied tended to be more competitive with one another than it is

common for European-Americans to be.

d. All of the above

Answer: a

 

3. Which of the following behaviors might be considered rude in Morocco?

a. Asking the time dinner is to be served                                  b. Complimenting parents on their very young child

c. Making polite conversation during dinner                d. All of the above

Answer: d

 

4. Intercultural identity is

a. a disorientation that occurs as a result of immersion in a new culture.

b. a sense of belonging both to oneÕs own original culture and to a new culture at the same time.

c. a tendency to see everything from the perspective of what is normative in oneÕs own culture.

d. a kind of role-playing demanded by foreigners who are trying to be accepted.

Answer: b

 

5. Which of the following is NOT affected by culture?

a. The way we perceive events and people        b. The roles we are willing to play

c. The degree to which we are goal directed       d. None of the above; i.e., all are affected by culture

Answer: d

 

6. When Edward Hall says, ÒIf you touch a culture in one place, everything else is affected,Ó he means

a. culture has many facets and all these facets are interrelated.

b. people are very touchy about their cultures and are easily offended when taboos are broken.

c. culture can easily be dismantled and changed.

d. the basis of all cultural understanding is economic.

Answer: a

 

7. Effort optimism is

a. the belief that hard work will pay off.

b. a feeling of depression that occurs during culture shock.

c. the idea that people should be accepted no matter how different they are.

d. the idea that in the future fate will cause things to improve.

Answer: a

 

8. The belief that human behavior is shaped by environmental factors and that improving a personÕs

surroundings will improve that person is called the:

a. rationality premise.      b. perfectibility premise.   c. mutability premise.     d. effort optimism.

Answer: c

 

9. The idea that humans are born in sin but are capable of achieving goodness through effort and control

is called the

a. rationality premise.   b. perfectibility premise.   c. mutability premise.    d. effort optimism.

Answer: b

 

10. The idea that most people are capable of discovering the truth through logical analysis is called

a. rationality premise.   b. perfectibility premise.  c. mutability premise.    d. effort optimism.

Answer: a

 

11. Which of the following is a characteristic of the thinking of most Americans?

a. effort optimism.    b. collectivism.    c. mutability premise.      d. All of the above

Answer: b

 

12. Which is a value in individualist countries?

a. Modesty      b. Freedom       c. Thrift      d. Equality in reward distribution

Answer: b

 

13. Which of the following is true of the behavior of collectivists?

a. They take pride in personal achievement.

b. They have little respect for position, age, sex, status, and authority.

c. They are upset by bribery and nepotism.

d. When group memberships change, their values and personal styles may change as well.

Answer: d

 

14. Which is true of prejudice?

a. It is usually formed from direct observation of members of out-groups.

b. Its purpose is to help people make accurate assessments about others.

c. It is a product of in-group interaction.

d. All of the above

Answer: c

 

15. Comparatively, Americans value which of the following language styles?

a. ambiguity                 b. Directness                c. Effusiveness             d. lying

Answer: b

 

16. Stereotypes fulfill which of the following functions?

a. Reducing anxiety about uncertainty.

b. Making the world seem more predictable.

c. Reducing anxiety about uncertainty and making the world seem more predictable.

d. None of the above

Answer: c

 

17. Discounting is a cognitive bias by which we

a. dismiss information that doesnÕt fit a negative stereotype.

b. interpret everything a target group does as negative.

c. interpret othersÕ negative behaviors as internal rather than external.

d. look for differences and ignore similarities.

Answer: a

 

18. Polarization is a cognitive bias by which we

a. dismiss information that doesnÕt fit a negative stereotype.

b. interpret everything a target group does as negative.

c. interpret othersÕ negative behaviors as internal rather than external.

d. look for differences and ignore similarities.

Answer: d

 

19. Which is a stumbling block to intercultural understanding?

a. prejudice                               b. assumption of similarity

c. ethnocentrism                       d. All of the above

Answer: d

 

20. The belief that if one of ÒthemÓ is rude, itÕs because theyÕre that way by nature; if one of ÒusÓ is rude,

itÕs because weÕre under stress is an example of

a. discounting.

b. fundamental attribution bias.

c. polarization.

d. assumption of similarity.

Answer: b

 

21. The draw-back-to-leap model holds

a. people should think before they rush into a new situation.

b. brief periods of culture shock are necessary for adaptive change.

c. when in a new culture it is a good idea not to be too friendly at first but to bide your time until

you have more information.

d. prejudiced people misjudge one another based on little real information.

Answer: b

 

22. A symptom of culture shock are feelings of

a. helplessness and lowered self-esteem.           b. excitement and euphoria.

c. confidence and competence.                                    d. superiority and arrogance.

Answer: a

 

23. Which of the following groups shows the greatest cultural distance?

a. U.S. American/British            b. American Catholic/American Baptist

c. Western/Asian                      d. Urban American/Rural American

Answer: c

 

24. Which is NOT a factor associated with successful cross-cultural adaptation?

a. A positive attitude by host nationals to foreigners

b. Open-mindedness on the part of the sojourner

c. Staying away from host nationals and communicating primarily with fellow sojourners

d. All of the above

Answer: c

 

25. When people refer to the global village, they mean:

a. We are becoming more isolated from one another.

b. In the future, big cities will fade and small towns will become the norm.

c. The media distort the true economic conditions of the U.S.

d. The world is shrinking daily because of advances in telecommunication and transportation

technologies.

Answer: d

 

Chapter 13 Test Questions

1. Which statement does NOT characterize commonsense ways of knowing?

a. People privilege their own experiences.

b. People tend to dismiss anything that contradicts what theyÕve already decided is true.

c. People rely on simple heuristics.

d. People seldom accept the first reasonable explanation they come across.

Answer: d

 

2. Heuristics are

a. multistage methods used by professional scholars to test theories.

b. a way of drawing a representative sample for a research study.

c. simple rules that allow people to interpret information without a great deal of thought.

d. a systematic process of carefully evaluating incoming data by using current schema.

Answer: c

 

3. Which is NOT a characteristic of scholarly research?

a. It uses simple heuristics     b. It is self critical   c. It is cyclical   d. It is self-correcting

Answer: a

 

4. When we say that research must be replicable, we mean

a. researchers must avoid repeating earlier studies.

b. methods must be so objective that the same results would occur if it were conducted again.

c. research must always include a comparison between a treatment and a control group.

d. research involves inventive ingenuity.

Answer: b

 

5. Which of the following is an example of an operational definition of credibility?

a. Credibility is the extent to which an individual is perceived as being worthy of belief.

b. Credibility is the amount of informational power a source possesses.

c. Credibility is the score a source achieves on a 7-point scale that asks subjects to indicate their

responses to the statement: ÒI find the source believable.Ó

d. All of the above

Answer: c

 

6. Which of the following ways of investigating the topic of communication in cults is an example of

rhetorical criticism?

a. Join a cult and observe cult members as they communicate.

b. Analyze the values in the cult leadersÕ speeches.

c. Send questionnaires to ex-members asking them to describe why they joined the cult and what

they communicated about in the cult.

d. Take transcripts from cult membersÕ diaries and perform these transcripts before an audience.

Answer: b

 

7. Which of the following ways of investigating political communication is an example of ethnographic

research?

a. Volunteer to work in the campaign of a senate candidate and observe his/her behavior.

b. View videotapes of campaign ads and identify the themes used at various stages of the campaign.

c. Interview a representative group of politicians, asking them to describe and rate strategies used

in the campaign.

d. Create two different ads, one that attacks a candidateÕs opponent and the other than gives

positive information about the candidate; show the ads to randomly selected groups of viewers to

see which is most effective.

Answer: a

 

8. Which of the following research questions most clearly calls for content analysis?

a. Is racial tension increasing at a certain high school, as measured by graffiti?

b. How are conversational openings and closing structured?

c. What is the average number of violent acts on prime-time television?

d. How did Mario Cuomo use metaphor to reach multiple audiences in his keynote address at the

l984 Democratic National Convention?

Answer: c

 

9. The research method that is an extension and refinement of the everyday impulse to evaluate and

analyze the impact of messages is

a. triangulation.             b. conversational analysis.    c. rhetorical criticism.     d. survey research.

Answer: c

 

10. A study in which the critic looked at the way cultural products represent a cultureÕs basic ideals and

principles would be an example of

a. Burkean dramatistic analysis.   b. unobtrusive measurement   .c. social movement study.    d. social values criticism.

Answer: d

 

11. Which research method did ConquergoodÕs study of gangs in Chicago use?

a. survey research   b. experimental     c. ethnography    d. performance studies

Answer: c

 

12. Which of the following survey questions is phrased in an acceptable way?

a. How many ounces of cola beverage do you consume in a week?

b. When you cheat on tests, why do you do so?

c. Do you believe that the way women are portrayed on television as sex

objects should be changed?

d. None of the above

Answer: d

 

13. Vignes used which method in conducting her study of the Katrina survivors?

a. Questionnaire    b. Content analysis of open-ended responses   c. Survey d. Performance Research

Answer: d

 

14. RayÕs study showed that

a. women never tried to gain the right to vote.   b. most people today donÕt believe women should be voting.

c. real social change, such as women earning the right to vote, requires hard work and

overcoming obstacles.     d. before earning the vote, women would dress up like men to try to register to vote.

Answer: c

 

15. Which of the following is NOT essential in a well-designed study?

a. use of naturally occurring groups                             b. comparison of two or more groups

c. random assignment to treatment groups       d. a post-test

Answer: a

 

16. According to the studies on reality television, which is NOT a motive for watching reality television

programs?

a. The need to escape                           b. The need to feel self important

c. An enjoyment of competition           d. To procrastinate from doing homework

Answer: d

 

17. What was NOT a result of LeeÕs study on the developmental nature of robots?

a. Students that interacted with the developing robot felt it was more lifelike.

b. Students that interacted with the developing robot experienced more social presence.

c. Students that interacted with the developing robot felt emotionally closer to it.

d. Students that interacted with the developing robot felt that it was annoying.

Answer: d